I came into some confusion while fixing docs/theory/continuous-treatments.md in #178.
The hidden variables section could use some clarity and clearing up some of the ambiguity, but currently I'm not sure what the intended description should be, so I left it largely untouched.
The example of confusion I gave in the #178 pr is copy and pasted below:
From
Given $(C = c, Z = z, L = l)$, the conditional mean of $(U_X, U_Y)$ is defined to be zero for all $(c, z, l)$. We define the conditional covariance matrix of $U_X$ to be the $n_Z \times n_Z$ identity matrix, and the variance of $U_Y$ to be 1. What is left to be modelled is the conditional cross-covariance between $U_X$ and $U_Y$,
$$ \sigma_{czl} \equiv \mathbb E[U_X U_Y \ \vert \ C = c, Z = z, L = l], $$
We have
$$\left.
\begin{pmatrix}
U_X \\\
U_Y
\end{pmatrix}
\,\right|\,
C=c,\ Z=z,\ L=l
\sim
\mathcal{N}\left(
\begin{pmatrix}
\mathbf{0}_{d_X} \\\
0
\end{pmatrix},
\begin{pmatrix}
I_{d_X} & \sigma_{czl} \\\
\sigma_{czl}^{\top} & 1
\end{pmatrix}.
\right).$$
which implies
$$C \perp U_X \mid Z,L.$$
Now for the regression equation, originally we had
$$\begin{align}
r(x,z,l)
&:= \mathbb{E}\!\left[
Y \mid X=x, Z=z, L=l
\right] \notag \\\
&= \int
f_Y(u_y,x,l)\,
p(u_y\mid u,l)\,
\mathrm{d}u_y \notag \\\
&= \int
f_Y(u_y,x,l)\,
\sum_c \pi_{ul}(c)\,
p_{\mathcal N}(u_y;m_c,v_c)\,
\mathrm{d}u_y.
\end{align}$$
But the probability on the second line, $p(u_y \vert u, l)$, should be $p(u_y, \vert u, l, z)$. And when we do that surely we get the following:
$$\begin{align}
r(x,z,l)
&:= \mathbb{E}\!\left[
Y \mid X=x, Z=z, L=l
\right] \notag \\\
&= \int
f_Y(u_y,x,l)\,
p_{U_Y\mid U_X,Z,L}(u_y\mid u,z,l)\,
\mathrm{d}u_y \notag \\\
&= \int
f_Y(u_y,x,l)\,
\sum_{c=1}^{K}
\mathbb{P}(C=c\mid U_X=u, Z=z,L=l)\,
p_{\mathcal N}(u_y;m_c,v_c)\,
\mathrm{d}u_y, \\\
&= \int
f_Y(u_y,x,l)\,
\sum_{c=1}^{K}
\mathbb{P}(C=c\mid Z=z,L=l)\,
p_{\mathcal N}(u_y;m_c,v_c)\,
\mathrm{d}u_y,
\end{align}$$
Unless we are assuming
$$\mathbb{p}(C=c \mid U_X=u, Z=z, L=l)\\\
=
\pi_{ul}(c) = \mathbb{p}(C=c \mid U_X=u, L=l),$$
or equivalently,
$$C \perp Z \mid U_X,L.$$
Combined with $C \perp U_X \mid Z, L$ that would give us
$$\mathbb{P}(C=c \mid U_X=u, Z=z, L=l) = \mathbb{P}(C=c \mid L=l)$$
But surely that contradicts
$$\pi_{ul} \equiv \mathrm{softmax}(f_\pi(u, l; \theta_\pi))$$
I came into some confusion while fixing
docs/theory/continuous-treatments.mdin #178.The
hidden variablessection could use some clarity and clearing up some of the ambiguity, but currently I'm not sure what the intended description should be, so I left it largely untouched.The example of confusion I gave in the #178 pr is copy and pasted below:
From
We have
which implies
Now for the regression equation, originally we had
But the probability on the second line,$p(u_y \vert u, l)$ , should be $p(u_y, \vert u, l, z)$ . And when we do that surely we get the following:
Unless we are assuming
or equivalently,
Combined with$C \perp U_X \mid Z, L$ that would give us
But surely that contradicts